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iamlost1000
Average Member

USA
9 Posts

 Posted - 09/28/2007 :  03:06:00 Whats the difference between anti-derivative, riemman sum, and definite integral. Anybody have any good explanations or examples

royhaas
Moderator

USA
3059 Posts

 Posted - 09/28/2007 :  03:56:06 An anti-derivative is an indefinite integral. Two anti-derivatives of the same function differ only by a constant. An anti-derivative evaluated at two endpoints of an interval is the basis for the value of a definite integral. Both F(x) and F(x)-1 are anti-derivatives of the function F'(x).A Riemman sum is an approximating sum of rectangular areas whose limiting form is a definite integral, which may have the value F(b)-F(a).

iamlost1000
Average Member

USA
9 Posts

 Posted - 10/04/2007 :  01:13:24 ok. I'm a bit confused. Whats the difference between using rimeean sum to find the area and using the fundermental theorems like defininte intergral to find the area??
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