Author 
Topic 

kylek1151
Senior Member
USA
21 Posts 
Posted  09/12/2007 : 12:45:40

I have got a problem that has been killing me, I have tried a few things but can't figure it out. I know the basic principle behind the Squeeze Theorem(at least I thought I did), but it is still a no go. The problem is stated like this:
Use the Squeeze Theorem to show that the limit of x*cos(50/x)=0 as x approaches 0.
I tried making two different functions, one higher and one lower, by just taking 1 + x*cos(50/x) and 1  x*cos(50/x) but I can't figure out how to make it work since there is a x in the denominator in the cosine function. Any help would be greatly appreciated. 


pka
Advanced Member
USA
2731 Posts 
Posted  09/12/2007 : 14:33:29

That same idea works for cos(50/x). 


sahsjing
Advanced Member
USA
2399 Posts 
Posted  09/12/2007 : 15:13:32

x x*cos(50/x)x 


kylek1151
Senior Member
USA
21 Posts 
Posted  09/12/2007 : 15:20:31

Oh, I see. I think I was just confused on how to approach a problem like this. I believe I understand now. Thanks guys! 



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