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kylek1151
Senior Member

USA
21 Posts

 Posted - 09/12/2007 :  12:45:40 I have got a problem that has been killing me, I have tried a few things but can't figure it out. I know the basic principle behind the Squeeze Theorem(at least I thought I did), but it is still a no go. The problem is stated like this:Use the Squeeze Theorem to show that the limit of x*cos(50/x)=0 as x approaches 0.I tried making two different functions, one higher and one lower, by just taking 1 + x*cos(50/x) and 1 - x*cos(50/x) but I can't figure out how to make it work since there is a x in the denominator in the cosine function. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

pka

USA
2731 Posts

 Posted - 09/12/2007 :  14:33:29 That same idea works for cos(50/x).

sahsjing

USA
2399 Posts

 Posted - 09/12/2007 :  15:13:32 -|x| x*cos(50/x)|x|

kylek1151
Senior Member

USA
21 Posts

 Posted - 09/12/2007 :  15:20:31 Oh, I see. I think I was just confused on how to approach a problem like this. I believe I understand now. Thanks guys!
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